<BLOCKQUOTE><font size="1" face="Verdana, Arial">quote:</font><HR>Originally posted by ozarque:
I'm going to make one final try with this --<HR></BLOCKQUOTE>
Thank you... I understand that this is a complex subject. I am truly sincere in my desire to understand the discrepencies (as I see them). However, I hope it isn't really your final attempt at trying to enlighten me.
I'll try to explain the paradox and discrepencies (as I see them) more clearly.
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Suppose I believe -- as I do believe -- that violence is never justified and never acceptable.
So far, I'm with you... To understand where I'm at,
for me,
never has a specific meaning. (I.E.: not
ever, at
no time, not in
any degree, not under
any condition)
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Suppose I violate that belief, in spite of my determination not to. (For me, the most likely scenario is that I would do something violent to prevent someone from harming a child.)
So... here is one specific scenerio that, all other options having failed to prevent someone from harming a child, you could see yourself violating your belief and using violence if necessary. I call it defense, either way it is a physical response. Thus, in this case, you must have reached the conclusion that violence was justified or acceptable and violated your belief that it was
never justified and
never acceptable.
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The moral failure comes from the fact that I did not find some other solution -- some nonviolent solution.
I can completely understand the need and desire to find some nonviolent solution. I can also understand that to prevent someone harming the child in the cirumstances that would make you violate your beliefs that you would have no other viable option and the actions of the person intent on harming the child, no matter what other options you would attempt, would dictate the violation of the fundamental belief in non-violence.
However, psychologists who council survivors of violent attacks (rapes, muggings, etc) will tell their patients that the acts of another person can not and should not reflect on them as a person. Therefore, the violent acts of someone who was intent on harming a child that placed you in a position to defend that child should not cause you to become a "moral failure" because someone else can't dictate your own self worth.
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Nonviolence is one of the most powerful forces in this world; it offers many possible courses of action.
Couldn't agree more... I think Ghandi did a
fine job of proving that. At least to a large extent.

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For me, it is my moral responsibility to find a nonviolent solution in many situations for which others (probably the majority) consider a violent solution acceptable.
Completely understand and completely agree. I also would make every attempt to find a nonviolent solution. In fact, I'd bet that our lines aren't that far apart in the sand (or stone)

... However, just as I pointed out in previous posts and just as I've discussed with my friend who maintains the same belief, (The belief that violence is
never justified and
never acceptable, though interestingly enough they also have a point at which they would cross the line and would defend self and other innocents), you have just give us a case where a physical response to someone else's violent actions
would or
could be taken.
My point has been, and is, that we have a difference not in the use of violence or even when and if, but in one piece of the semantics puzzle. You (and my friend as well) gave a case where you would give a physical response. Therefore in that extreme case, a physical defensive response to someone else's physical violence is either justified or acceptable... otherwise, IMNSHO, you should not have used a physical response at all. Given the mere fact that you would consider a physical response, to me, shows that the absolute term of
never either shouldn't be used, is misunderstood, misplaced or is hypocritical. I really don't feel that you or my friend are hypocritical, so I firmly believe that this is a semantics issue caused by one of the first reasons. As a linguist, I'm sure you can see my point on that. If the belief were rephrased slightly, say as, "violence is
only justified and
only acceptable as the very
last resort when all other options have failed and
only in the
defense of yourself or some innocent person who is in imminent danger of death or grave bodily harm."
Then my paradox of something being done that, by doing, would make one a "moral failure"... which should
never be done... and the act of actually taking such action under the most
extreme circumstances (of self-defense), do not conflict with each other. Is that understandable? IMO, if there is even one single case where someone can say that an act could or would be used, then the term
never must be removed from the equation.